I am looking to capitalize on economies of scale by purchasing my primary fermentable base grain in the 55 lb sack. With that said, I will be committed to brewing several batches using this single type of grain as the base malt. Will I see a significant difference in desired beer flavor that the recipe designers are trying to achieve if I don't use the prescribed base malt? My novice perception is that base malt is primarily used as a sugar source and only to a lesser degree to achieve a desired flavor for the beer. Flavor is brought on by hops, specialty grain, and yeast strain differences. Is this correct? I was planning on going with a simple Rahr 2-row which I can get for less than $1/lb to be my catch all base malt. I brew all types of beers from very light IPAs to dark stouts. The 55 lb bag will last me a year with the frequency I brew at. Thank you very much for your time in answering my question.